Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why do Darwin atheists not like facts of Genesis? I’ve noticed they block and dismiss everything a person states. Is that how science works to hide when a truth comes at them?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why do you think Islam oppresses women when Christianity clearly does it more?

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Is it wrong that I picked to be a Christian (as a teenager/14-year-old) even with knowing all of the information about other religions/atheism?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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